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CAPE Biology Unit 1 · 2012 · Paper 1

44 multiple-choice items from this paper. Open one to see it in full, then practise it on Quelpr and get it marked against the mark scheme.

Practise this paper
  1. Q11 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following BEST describes the properties of water?
  2. Q21 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following statements is true about BOTH isomers?
  3. Q31 mark · multiple choicePhospholipids will affect the function of which of the following cell structures? I. Endoplasmic reticulum II. Centrioles III. Mitochondrion IV. Nucleolus
  4. Q41 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following carbohydrates are MOST likely present in the solution?
  5. Q51 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following is the molecule represented by the structure?
  6. Q61 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following terms BEST describes the structure of collagen?
  7. Q71 mark · multiple choiceCarbohydrates are transported in plants MAINLY in the form of
  8. Q81 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following structures, present in this cell, would NOT be seen in a bacterial cell?
  9. Q91 mark · multiple choiceThe area labelled X represents
  10. Q101 mark · multiple choiceThe figure above BEST demonstrates
  11. Q111 mark · multiple choiceWhen a plant cell is placed in a solution with a less negative water potential than its cell sap, the cell becomes more
  12. Q121 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following events does NOT involve the movement of ions/chemicals across cell membranes?
  13. Q131 mark · multiple choicePepsin is an enzyme found in the human alimentary system. Which of the above activity curves represents the action of pepsin?
  14. Q141 mark · multiple choiceBased on the diagram above, which of the following statements BEST describes the rate of the enzyme-catalysed reaction?
  15. Q151 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the labelled curves BEST represents the presence of a competitive inhibitor?
  16. Q161 mark · multiple choiceThe base X is
  17. Q171 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following gives the correct sequence of events in the replication of DNA? I. Bonds between complementary bases break. II. Bonds between complementary bases form. III. Opposite strands separate. IV. Free…
  18. Q181 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following correctly identifies the sequence of bases of the mRNA strand produced during transcription?
  19. Q191 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following statements correctly describes the difference between RNA and DNA?
  20. Q201 mark · multiple choiceWhich two of the following features are evident during mitosis? I. Two daughter nuclei containing identical sets of chromosomes. II. Homologous chromosomes come together and crossing over occurs. III. Four daughter…
  21. Q211 mark · multiple choiceIn a rat cell, there are 32 chromatids present at the beginning of Prophase of mitosis. How many chromatids would there be in the cell at the beginning of Prophase 1 of meiosis?
  22. Q221 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following statements BEST explains a null hypothesis?
  23. Q231 mark · multiple choiceWhen a cross was made between a purebreeding pea plant with green, round seeds and a pure breeding plant with yellow, wrinkled seeds, all of the \text{F}_1 progeny had yellow round seeds. Which of the following…
  24. Q241 mark · multiple choiceWhich restriction enzyme(s) can be used to cut the DNA?
  25. Q251 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following identifies the correct sequence of the process? 1 Potential difference applied. 2 Cut by restriction enzymes. 3 DNA extracted from cell. 4 Fragments travel to anode. 5 ^{32}\text{P} probe added.…
  26. Q261 mark · multiple choiceWhich form of mutation does the diagram illustrate?
  27. Q271 mark · multiple choiceAfter which of the following forms of gene mutation will a change in codons occur? I. Substitution II. Inversion III. Addition IV. Deletion
  28. Q281 mark · multiple choiceGiraffes are thought to have evolved long necks due to a short supply of food. Selection pressure favoured those with long necks who were able to reach enough food to survive. This type of selection is known as
  29. Q291 mark · multiple choiceA possible benefit of producing transgenic plants is
  30. Q301 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following plays the MOST significant role in allopatric speciation?
  31. Q311 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following methods of asexual reproduction is INCORRECT, either by its definition or its examples?
  32. Q321 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following accurately lists the type of cell division occuring at E, F and G?
  33. Q331 mark · multiple choiceThe following are advantages of two types of pollination. I. No need for another plant II. Increases vigour III. Widens gene pool IV. No loss of advantageous phenotypes Which of the above are specific to cross…
  34. Q341 mark · multiple choiceThe processes occuring at Stages 1, 2, 3, and 4 respectively are
  35. Q351 mark · multiple choiceIn some plants the androecium matures before the gynoecium. Such plants are described as
  36. Q361 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following correctly identifies the structures labelled P, Q, R and S?
  37. Q371 mark · multiple choiceIn plants the ovary is BEST described as the
  38. Q381 mark · multiple choiceWhich option describes the correct order of development?
  39. Q391 mark · multiple choiceWhich of the following statements describes the events occurring in asexual reproduction ONLY?
  40. Q401 mark · multiple choiceWhat is the function of testosterone in spermatogenesis?
  41. Q421 mark · multiple choiceDuring the development of a foetus in the womb, the wall of the uterus consists of a layer of muscle and the
  42. Q431 mark · multiple choiceFollicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) acts directly on the cells labelled
  43. Q441 mark · multiple choiceA birth control method that is used after sexual intercourse is typically referred to as a
  44. Q451 mark · multiple choiceThe structure labelled X is the

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