2 marksIntegration I
CAPE Pure Mathematics Unit 1 · May/June 2007 · Paper 2 · Question 6(a)(i)
Use the result ∫_0^a f(x)dx = ∫_0^a f(a-x)dx, a > 0, to show that if I = ∫_0^(π/2) sin^2 x dx, then I = ∫_0^(π/2) cos^2 x dx.
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